skin biopsy

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old male presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past six months. He reports no pain, itching, or bleeding. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Given the clinical presentation and morphology, what is the most appropriate initial step in management?

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of a persistent, asymptomatic lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 6 months. He denies any trauma to the area. He reports no other skin issues or systemic symptoms. Physical examination reveals the lesion shown. The patient is concerned about cosmetic appearance and potential for malignancy. What is the MOST appropriate initial management step?

A 68-year-old woman presents with a persistent, pruritic rash on her chest wall at the site of a previous mastectomy performed 8 years ago for invasive ductal carcinoma. She completed adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation. Examination reveals the area shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 40-year-old man presents with a painless, slowly growing lesion on his nose for the past 8 months. He denies any trauma or previous skin conditions. Examination reveals the pictured lesion. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of a persistent, mildly pruritic skin lesion on her left chest wall. She had a left simple mastectomy for invasive ductal carcinoma 10 years ago, followed by adjuvant therapy. She denies fever, weight loss, or other systemic symptoms. Physical examination reveals the appearance shown. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic investigation?

A 35-year-old man presents to his general practitioner reporting a lesion on his nose that he first noticed approximately three months ago. He describes it as initially resembling a persistent pimple, but notes it has not resolved and appears to be slowly increasing in size. He denies any associated pain, itching, or bleeding from the site. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he is not currently taking any regular medications. He works outdoors in a role involving significant sun exposure but admits to inconsistent use of sun protection measures. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. The lesion in question is located on his nose and has the appearance shown in the accompanying image. No other suspicious skin lesions are identified elsewhere on his body, and regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion depicted, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has gradually increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the lesion. Based on the appearance of this lesion, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a persistent lesion on his nose that has been present for several months and has not changed significantly in size or appearance. He reports it is occasionally itchy but otherwise asymptomatic. His medical history is unremarkable, and vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, you observe the lesion shown in the image. Considering the appearance of this lesion, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A 65-year-old woman presents with a several-month history of a slowly enlarging, mildly pruritic skin lesion on her left chest wall. She underwent a simple mastectomy on the left side for invasive ductal carcinoma 8 years ago. She denies systemic symptoms. Physical examination reveals the appearance shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old man presents with a painless lesion on his nose that has been present for several months. He denies any trauma or recent illness. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 40-year-old patient presents with a persistent, slightly raised lesion on their nose that has been present for several months. It is asymptomatic except for occasional mild itching. There is no history of trauma or recent changes in size or colour. The patient is otherwise healthy. Considering the appearance of the lesion shown and the clinical presentation, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial approach?

A 35-year-old male presents with a painless lesion on his nose that has been present for several months. He denies any trauma or previous skin conditions. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial management step?

A 62-year-old woman presents for a routine follow-up appointment several years after undergoing a simple mastectomy for pT1N0M0 invasive ductal carcinoma of the left breast. She completed adjuvant endocrine therapy and has been well since, reporting no new systemic symptoms such as unexplained weight loss, fatigue, or bone pain. Her last mammogram of the contralateral breast and clinical examination at her previous visit six months ago were unremarkable. During the current consultation, she mentions that she has noticed a persistent area of skin change on her left chest wall, near the mastectomy scar, over the past few months. She describes it as occasionally itchy and slightly raised, but denies pain, discharge, or significant discomfort. Her vital signs are stable (BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 72 bpm, RR 16/min, Temp 36.8°C). Physical examination reveals no palpable axillary or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. The appearance of the affected area is shown in the image. Considering the patient's history, the duration and nature of the symptoms, and the clinical presentation, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step to investigate this new finding?

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has slowly increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 62-year-old woman presents for a routine follow-up appointment several years after undergoing a simple mastectomy for pT1N0M0 invasive ductal carcinoma of the left breast. She completed adjuvant endocrine therapy and has been well since. During the consultation, she mentions that she has noticed a persistent area of skin change on her left chest wall, near the mastectomy scar, over the past few months. She describes it as occasionally itchy and slightly raised, but denies pain, discharge, or systemic symptoms such as weight loss or fever. Her vital signs are stable, and physical examination reveals no palpable axillary or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. The appearance of the affected area is shown in the image. Considering the patient's history and the clinical presentation, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?